Differences in the soluble HLA-G blood serum concentration levels

Differences in the soluble HLA-G blood serum concentration levels in patients with ovarian cancer and ovarian and deep endometriosis. Am J Reprod Immunol 2010 Problem  The relationship between endometriosis and cancer has been widely discussed in the literature but is still not well clarified. Perhaps significantly, soluble human leukocyte antigen-G (sHLA-G) has been identified in the microenvironment of both ovarian cancer and endometrioma. The aim of this study has been to evaluate the sHLA-G levels in the blood sera of women with deep endometriosis and ovarian endometrioma

over the course of the menstrual cycle and to compare to the levels of sHLA-G in the blood sera of women with ovarian CHIR-99021 cell line cancer. Method of study  In our study, we examined the blood sera obtained from 123 patients operated on because of ovarian cancer (65 cases), ovarian endometrioma (30 cases), and deep endometriosis (28 cases). We decided to compare the levels of sHLA-G in Selleck LY294002 patients with endometriosis to those found in patients with ovarian cancer with respect to the menstrual cycle phases. The sHLA-G concentration level was measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay kit. Results  The level of sHLA-G concentration in the blood serum of patients with deep endometriosis fluctuates over the course of the menstrual cycle, and during the proliferative and secretory phases,

it remains at a high level comparable to that found in patients with ovarian cancer. By contrast, the level of sHLA-G

concentration in the blood serum of patients with ovarian endometrioma fluctuates minimally over the course of the different menstrual cycle phases and, as in patients with ovarian cancer, it remains at high level during the proliferative phase. Conclusion  sHLA-G blood serum concentration levels would seem to provide important information regarding the degree of immune system regulation disturbance in both ectopic endometrial cells and the cancer cell suppressive microenvironment. “
“The role of mast cells (MCs) in ID-8 the generation of adaptive immune responses especially in the transplant immune responses is far from being resolved. It is reported that mast cells are essential intermediaries in regulatory T cell (Treg) transplant tolerance, but the mechanism has not been clarified. To investigate whether bone marrow-derived mast cells (BMMCs) can induce Tregs by expressing transforming growth factor beta 1 (TGF-β1) in vitro, bone marrow cells obtained from C57BL/6 (H-2b) mice were cultured with interleukin (IL)-3 (10 ng/ml) and stem cell factor (SCF) (10 ng/ml) for 4 weeks. The purity of BMMCs was measured by flow cytometry. The BMMCs were then co-cultured with C57BL/6 T cells at ratios of 1:2, 1:1 and 2:1. Anti-CD3, anti-CD28 and IL-2 were administered into the co-culture system with (experiment groups) or without (control groups) TGF-β1 neutralizing antibody.

Similarly, to our results with the DbPATCRβ clonotypes, these gB-

Similarly, to our results with the DbPATCRβ clonotypes, these gB-specific CD8+ T-cell responses in A7 mice were characterized by the same dominant Vβ bias but limited TCRβ repertoire diversity of HSV-derived CTL lines. gB-specific CD8+ T cells expressed the transgene Vα2 product, with no other Vα chains detected by surface staining. Thus, both Kb- and Db-restricted CD8+ T cells can be generated in transgenic A7 mice expressing fixed KbOVA257-specific Vα2 chain, with the limited TCRβ diversity being a result of structural constrains caused by TCR forced to use a single “irrelevant” TCRα-chain. It would be of interest to

further investigate such extreme flexibility in TCRαβ pairing in other systems of viral infection. Further evidence for flexibility in TCRαβ pairing comes from an in vitro study, in

which random pairing of naïve TCRβ and TCRα chains selected from hundreds of FDA-approved Drug Library datasheet TCRα or TCRβ transfectants specific or nonspecific for HIVgp160 showed that one-third of TCRαβ heterodimers retained their specificity 36, confirming a great level of flexibility in TCRαβ pairing. Thus, the breadth of TCRαβ diversity ensures that the fine peptide specificity is available when needed. Even if some of the DbNPCD8+ T cells from the A7 mice are using an alternate TCRα chain, from use of the ICS assay that stimulates all responding CTL irrespective of their particular TCRαβ pairing, the response to DbNP366 in the A7 TCR JQ1 molecular weight transgenic mice is suboptimal, both numerically and in the establishment of the “normal” immunodominance profile following secondary challenge. We have further established that the peptide-induced cytokine profiles are diminished and

that the response overall looks to be of lower avidity. This profile of compromised function is also apparent, though less dramatically, for the DbPA224-specfic T cells. Overall, the present experiments thus provide baselines for the further dissection of “adequate” versus Palmatine “ideal” CD8+ T-cell response and memory, providing insights that will inevitably factor into our thinking as we seek to develop improved CD8+T-cell vaccine and immunotherapy protocols. The B6 and H2b-congenic A7 and A9 mice were bred and housed at the Department of Microbiology and Immunology, University of Melbourne. The TCRα-chain transgenic A7 mice express the Vα2.7 (TCRAV2S7J26) TCR α-chain 18 derived from a KbOVA257-264 specific CTL clone 149.42 37. The A9 mice are transgenic for the Vβ5.2 (TCRBV5S2D2J2S6) 38 from a KbOVA257–264-specific CTL clone B3.1 39. The CDR3α sequence for A7 transgenic mice is SDNYQL, whereas the CDR3β sequence for A9 mice is SRANYEQ. All experiments followed the guidelines of the University of Melbourne Animal Ethics Experimentation Committee. Mice were lightly anaesthetized by inhalation of methoxyflurane and infected i.n. with 1×104 plaque forming units (p.f.u.) of A/HKx31 H3N2 influenza virus (X31) (H3N2, X31) influenza A virus in 30 μL of PBS. Mice used for recall responses were first primed i.p.

Published protocols for expanding CD4+ regulatory T cells ex vivo

Published protocols for expanding CD4+ regulatory T cells ex vivo rely on repetitive stimulation

via the TCR in combination with cytokine exposure.26–28 Within the CD8+ regulatory T-cell subset, adaptive CD8+ regulatory T cells are by far the most dominant group. These cells can be induced by stimulation through the T-cell receptor under certain conditions resulting in a variety of different phenotypes. Recently, it was demonstrated that buy Kinase Inhibitor Library CD8+ CD25+ Foxp3+ regulatory T cells can be generated by the treatment with anti-CD3 antibody.29,30 In addition, another population of human CD8+ CD25+ Foxp3+ regulatory T cells has been described by Siegmund et al.31 Here, TGF-β and CD3/CD28 antibodies were required to expand these cells. For the CD4+ T-cell subset it was shown that TGF-β-induced conversion of CD4+ T cells into the Foxp3+ phenotype by gut-associated DCs is augmented by the key metabolite of Vitamin A, RA, in vitro.32,33 Ideally, if unwanted uncontrolled immunosuppression is to be avoided, regulatory T cells should be manipulated to express homing molecules that direct them to the tissue of interest. Most interesting in this

context is the observation that the RA is synthesized in abundance by gut and gut-associated DCs21,32,33 and induces the specific gut-homing molecules CCR9 and α4β7 integrin on T cells.21 Therefore RA seems to play a predominant role in the homeostasis and homing of lymphoid populations Atezolizumab in vitro of the gut-associated lymphoid 3-mercaptopyruvate sulfurtransferase tissue (GALT). The important role of RA in controlling Foxp3 expression in combination with TGF-β suggests that the

GALT has evolved a specific system for maintaining a balanced symbiosis between the gut flora and the immune system.18,32–34 Intriguingly, in the current study we could demonstrate that the potential of TGF-β and RA to convert naive CD4+ T cells into Foxp3+ T cells is also true for both murine and human CD8+ T cells. Our work has shown that treating naive CD8+ T cells with TGF-β and RA induces murine and human CD8+ Foxp3+ T cells with suppressive activity. Although these CD8+ Foxp3+ T cells possess proliferative capability they exhibit a phenotype that is strikingly similar to that of naturally occurring CD4+ Foxp3+ regulatory T cells and TGF-β/RA-induced CD4+ regulatory T cells. Most notably, they specifically express higher levels of CD25, Gpr83 and CTLA-4 than do CD8+ Foxp3− T cells activated in vitro. In vitro and in vivo experimental systems investigating polyclonal populations of CD8+ regulatory T cells have assumed the existence of separate subsets of CD8+ regulatory T cells on the basis of several apparently distinct mechanisms of immune regulation.

However, eight individuals (all DRB1*1501) responded to this pept

However, eight individuals (all DRB1*1501) responded to this peptide in ex-vivo ELISPOT assays. We have identified

19 serotype-specific and conserved SCH772984 cell line peptides from the four DENV serotypes. The naturally exposed healthy immune donors in our study responded to peptides of at least two DENV serotypes, suggesting that they had been exposed to at least two DENV infections. This is not surprising, as we found that 50% of children aged 16, living in the suburban areas of the Colombo district in Sri Lanka, showed evidence of an apparent DI in 2003 [19]. Of the donors, only two had experienced a symptomatic secondary DI. Two of our donors responded to peptides of all four DENVs, suggesting that they had been exposed to all four of these DENVs without experiencing a severe DI. Sri Lanka has been affected by epidemics

of DHF for nearly two decades. In recent years, dengue has become the most common cause of mosquito-borne mortality [10]. Epidemiological data have suggested that DENV-2 and DENV-3 viruses were responsible for almost 95% of the infections during the last two decades up to 2009 [15]. Until 2009, DENV-1 and DENV-4 serotypes accounted for <10% of all symptomatic DIs. However, symptomatic infections due to DENV-4 remains at <5%. Despite DEN-4 not being detected in patients with symptomatic DIs, eight of 20 (40%) individuals recruited in our study responded to at least two peptides of the DENV-4, selleck products which was surprising. Therefore, it is possible that the majority of individuals exposed to DENV-4 develop mild/asymptomatic Arachidonate 15-lipoxygenase DI due to the low frequency of this serotype being detected among patients with acute DI. As dengue surveillance programmes, which are usually limited to patients with acute infection, may not detect ‘silent’ dengue transmission in the community. Although many individuals responded to DENV-4 peptides, only six of 20 responded to peptides of the DEN-1. This is perhaps not surprising, as until 2009 DEN-1 accounted

for <10% of symptomatic DIs and most individuals were probably not exposed to this virus serotype until recently. Many have investigated if certain DENV serotypes are associated with the development of severe DIs [20]. While all four DENV serotypes have been identified in patients with DHF/DSS, certain genotypes of DENV-2 and DENV-3 viruses are thought to be more virulent and able to cause more severe epidemics followed by DENV-1 [21–23]. DEN-4 has found to be associated with milder disease [24]. Although the DENV-4 serotype was not prevalent among patients with DHF/DSS in Sri Lanka, it is possible that it caused a majority of the silent DIs, as it resulted in milder clinical disease. As DENV isolation and serotyping by PCR or other methods have been carried out only in hospitalized patients in Sri Lanka [14,15,25], it is possible that milder clinical disease due to DENV-4 was not detected.

The most ecologically valid approach to determining the trainabil

The most ecologically valid approach to determining the trainability

of the CIVD response is to track individuals before, throughout, and after a prolonged period of natural exposure to cold stress. However, from a methodological and research design perspective, this approach is difficult to control, and it is not easy to isolate individual factors and mechanisms that can contribute to local thermal adaptation of the extremities. For example, it can be difficult GPCR Compound Library manufacturer to accurately quantify the duration and intensity of both whole-body and local cold exposure, such that results from field studies present equivocal evidence for adaptation. Table 1 summarizes a number of the existing field and laboratory studies on CIVD trainability. A number of studies suggest minimal adaptation even from occupations experiencing extensive local and/or general exposure to cold. One such study tracked a group of SCUBA divers stationed with the British Antarctic Survey for a year, with monthly laboratory immersions of the index finger into ice water [11]. Compared with a control group of nondiving Survey members, no significant differences

were reported in CIVD response between the groups over the study period, nor were there differences in subjective pain response. While one potential explanation may have been that an overall drop in core temperature during diving blunted the potential Y-27632 concentration CIVD response, an earlier study on the same population reported that rectal temperature during

diving did not decrease below 36.0°C, even though finger temperature decreased to 10°C over the approximate 30-minute dives [10]. Therefore, it must be concluded that significant peripheral cooling repeatedly occurred in the diving group over the course of the year, but that such repeated local cold exposure did not significantly affect core temperature nor enhance CIVD response. Furthering the lack of response, Livingstone [50] and Livingstone et al. [51] reported lower mean finger temperatures in groups of Canadian soldiers upon immersion of the middle finger into ice water following a Aspartate two-week Arctic expedition. However, one potential caveat in interpreting these studies, especially with the Canadian soldiers, is that the subjects were already living in winter environments, and may have experienced natural cold acclimatization and therefore limited further potential for adaptation. Other literature suggests that field acclimatization is indeed possible. Tropical inhabitants—soldiers from the plains of India—exhibited an improved peripheral blood flow and CIVD response after seven weeks of exposure to the Arctic environment [63], but this remained below the level found in Arctic natives, and suggests that full adaptation requires much longer exposure periods.

Alterations to the balance of angiogenic (i e , placental growth

Alterations to the balance of angiogenic (i.e., placental growth factor) and anti-angiogenic factors (i.e., soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1; soluble endoglin) SCH727965 ic50 are highlighted as potential contributors to endothelial cell dysfunction. Notably, increased activation of inflammatory cells, with concomitant shifts in cytokine profiles, has been observed in women with preeclampsia. The authors describe these alterations and how they are linked with endothelial cell dysfunction. Investigations that have documented the effect of preeclampsia on altered vasoresponsiveness of both systemic and uterine resistance vessels

are summarized. Recent developments implicate not only circulating factors, but also endothelial-derived microparticles, as mediating the systemic vascular effects of preeclampsia. Endothelial dysfunction within the fetoplacental circulation also is a central feature of GDM. Guzmán-Gutiérrez et al. [6] describe the regulation of l-arginine transport within the macro- and microvascular endothelial cells of the placental circulation, and highlight the inherent phenotypic differences exhibited by these two types of endothelial cells. The authors summarize recent advances in understanding how the placental endothelial cell l-arginine/nitric oxide (NO) signaling pathway is subject to modulation by adenosine and insulin. They discuss a model of how imbalances in adenosine and insulin-mediated signals

may disrupt physiological function of the l-arginine/NO pathway within the placental circulation during GDM. As the rate of occurrence of the pathological condition of GDM grows in the population see more in parallel with rates of obesity and insulin resistance, this undoubtedly is a key area that warrants further investigation. “
“Please cite this paper as: Leach and Mann (2011). Consequences of Fetal Programming for Cardiovascular Disease in Adulthood. Microcirculation 18(4),

253–255. This Spotlight Issue of Microcirculation contains six current perspectives on the role of the intrauterine environment, especially maternal nutritional status and maternal diabetes, in influencing fetal growth and cardiovascular health in the offspring in later life. The reviews address issues such as the existence of a commonality Histamine H2 receptor of mechanism following both under-nutritional and over-nutritional states in utero; alterations in the placental fetal microcirculation in response to maternal and fetal changes; transmission of metabolic or nutritional perturbations affecting fetal endogenous antioxidant defense pathways; the presence of a disadvantageous microvascular phenotype resulting from perinatal priming; interactions between developmental programming and genetic variation in noncommunicable adult diseases such as hypertension and hypercholesterolemia; and unresolved questions on the independency and causal mechanisms for low birth weight/intrauterine growth restriction and the risk of developing the metabolic syndrome.

Women with nocturia >1 had a mean BWT of 5 6 mm, with nocturia <1

Women with nocturia >1 had a mean BWT of 5.6 mm, with nocturia <1 a mean BWT of 4.9 mm. Women with daytime frequency ABT 263 >7 had a mean BWT of 5.7 mm and those <7 had a mean BWT of 5.1 (P < 0.001). Women with a mean BWT of ≤ mm had a mean VAS score lower than women with

a BWT >5 mm (P < 0.001). They concluded that mean BWT implies the presence of OAB or urodynamic DO.91 Kuo HC et al. compared the differences of DWT and also urine nerve growth factor (NGF) levels between patients with OAB and controls to evaluate their suitability as potential biomarkers for OAB.92 Key results of this study documented that DWT decreased rapidly from empty bladder to a bladder volume of 250 mL and CHIR-99021 molecular weight slowly to the maximal bladder volume. DWT was not significantly different among subgroups at a 250 mL bladder volume. Although patients with OAB wet had a significantly greater DWT at the maximal bladder volume, this difference was not significant from controls

after correction of the volume factor. By contrast, urinary NGF levels were significantly increased in patients with OAB wet and those with urodynamic DO. A recent observational study by Lekskulchai and Dietz found a statistically significant correlation between DWT and DO, which indicated that patients with DO have a thicker DWT measured by translabial ultrasound.93 However, the low sensitivity based on ROC analysis concluded that DWT was not a useful diagnostic tool for DO, which contradicted to previously published study using a cut-off value of DWT.77,90 In published works regarding the measurements of DWT or BWT in men and women as a tool to confirm DO, as well as BOO, we found variable Idoxuridine findings. Most published data confirmed an increased DWT in men with

BOO compared with the controls.81,82,88 BWT tends to be greater in men than in women without LUTS; men with LUTS and benign prostatic enlargement show a moderate increase in BWT, and a small significant increase of BWT has been noted with age for both men and women.84 We postulate that the pathophysiology of OAB is complicated, especially in women. It is possible that some men with OAB or DO might have occult BOO, but most women with OAB or DO do not have BOO. This could explain why DWT of female OAB was not significantly increased compared with the controls. Although there were statistically significant differences in DWT at bladder capacity among OAB subgroups and controls, the differences of DWT or BWT between controls and OAB were small. We are not certain of the clinical significance of such a small difference in millimetersof thickness between the controls and patients with OAB or DO. Moreover, whether a small number of millimeters difference in thickness can be reproduced with repeated measurements by different investigators in different centers using different machines needs further investigation.

monocytogenes (Longhi et al , 2008) Biofilm formation by S  epid

monocytogenes (Longhi et al., 2008). Biofilm formation by S. epidermidis and S. aureus requires surface protein (Aap and SasG) that contain sequence repeats known as G5 domain (Rohde et al., 2005; Corrigan et al., 2007; Geoghegan et al.,

2010). Dimerization of the G5 domains in the presence of Zn2+ is essential for these proteins to function as intercellular adhesin (Conrady et al., 2008). Zn2+ chelation selleck was shown to specifically prevent biofilm formation by S. epidermidis and methicillin-resistant S. aureus, which was proposed as a potential approach for combating biofilm-related infections (Conrady et al., 2008). Antiparasitic drug nitazoxanide and its active metabolite, tizoxanide, were reported to inhibit S. epidermidis biofilm formation possibly by targeting the zinc-dependent adhesin Aap (Tchouaffi-Nana et al., 2010). Polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA) synthesized by the icaADBC operon of Staphylococci is one of the best understood EPS components and is essential for Staphylococci biofilm Selumetinib development. Thus the ica genes represent potential targets for biofilm inhibitors.

Oduwole et al. (2010) reported that the antibacterial agent povidone-iodine at sub-inhibitory concentrations has anti-biofilm activity against S. epidermidis by activating the icaR transcriptional repressor in S. epidermidis and reducing the transcription of the icaADBC operon (Oduwole et al., 2010). More recently, the organosulfur compound from garlic, allicin, was shown to inhibit PIA biosynthesis and biofilm development by S. epidermidis (Cruz-Villalon & Perez-Giraldo, 2011). Sulfhydryl compounds such as dithiothreitol, beta-mercaptoethanol or cysteine were also shown to reduce S. aureus biofilm formation

by inhibiting PIA biosynthesis Doxorubicin order probably through metabolic interventions (Wu et al., 2011a, b). Biofilm formation involves many ‘social’ activities including those of quorum sensing, iron siderophore and biosurfactant production (Davies et al., 1998; Davey et al., 2003; Banin et al., 2005; Alhede et al., 2009). Interference of these group activities can affect biofilm architecture and antibiotic resistance. Quorum sensing is widely used by microorganisms to coordinate communal behaviours such as bioluminescence, swarming and production of virulence (Rasmussen et al., 2000; DeLisa et al., 2001; Miller et al., 2002). Quorum sensing regulation is achieved by synthesizing and releasing small signal molecules by many denoted autoinducers (AIs), a word inspired from their positive feedback effect on expression of bioluminescense. The structures of AIs and their receptors have been extensively characterized (Shaw et al., 1997; Vannini et al., 2002; Bottomley et al., 2007).

a We

a. We Rucaparib recommend that CKD be diagnosed in all individuals on at least two occasions for a period of at least 3 months, irrespective of the underlying cause and on the basis of: (1C) an estimated or measured GFR <60 mL/min per 1.73 m2 and/or evidence of kidney damage (albuminuria, proteinuria, haematuria after exclusion of urological causes, or structural abnormalities on kidney imaging tests) Note: These diagnostic criteria are the same for all races and gender. b. We recommend that the stages of CKD should be based on the combined indices of kidney function (measured

or estimated GFR) (Table 2) and kidney damage (albuminuria/proteinuria) (Table 3), irrespective of the underlying diagnosis (1C). The following diagnostic evaluation tests for CKD are always indicated: Full blood count Repeat (within 1 week) serum urea/electrolytes/creatinine/eGFR/albumin Urine ACR (preferably Selleck STI571 on a first morning void, although a random urine is acceptable) Fasting lipids and glucose Urine microscopy and culture Renal ultrasound scan The following diagnostic evaluation tests for CKD are sometimes indicated: If patient: Then carry out the following test: Has diabetes HbA1C Has eGFR <60 mL/min per 1.73 m2 Serum calcium, phosphate, PTH, 25-hydroxy-vitamin D and iron studies Is >40 years old Serum and urine electrophoresis Has rash, arthritis or features of connective tissue disease Anti-nuclear antibodies, Extractable nuclear antigens, Complement studies

Has pulmonary symptoms or deteriorating kidney function Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody, Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic

antibody Has risk factors for HBV, HCV and HIV HBV, HCV, HIV serology Has persistent albuminuria >60–120 mg/mmol (approximately equivalent to 24 h urinary protein >1–2 g/day) Refer to Nephrologist for consideration of renal biopsy We recommend referral to a specialist renal service or nephrologist in the following situations: Stage 4 and 5 CKD of any cause (eGFR < 30 mL/min per 1.73 m2) (1C) Persistent significant albuminuria (ACR ≥ 30 mg/mmol, approximately equivalent to protein creatinine ratio (PCR) ≥50 mg/mmol, or urinary protein excretion ≥500 mg/24 h) (1C) A consistent decline Bortezomib in vivo in eGFR from a baseline of <60 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (a decline > 5 ml/min per 1.73 m2 over a 6-month period which is confirmed on at least three separate readings) (1C)* We suggest referral to a specialist renal service or nephrologist in the following situations: Glomerular haematuria with macroalbuminuria (2C) CKD and hypertension that is hard to get to target despite at least three anti-hypertensive agents (2C). We suggest discussing management issues with a specialist by letter, email or telephone in cases where it may not be necessary for the person with CKD to be seen by the specialist (2D). Once a referral has been made and a plan jointly agreed, routine follow-up could take place at the patient’s General Practitioner surgery rather than in a specialist clinic.

The colonization of the spleen by NBH cells correlates with postn

The colonization of the spleen by NBH cells correlates with postnatal deposition of microbial products that likely originate from mucosal surfaces, including lipopolysaccharide [[30]]. Compared with circulating neutrophils, NBH cells are more activated as they express increased amounts of B-cell-stimulating molecules such as BAFF, APRIL, CD40L, and IL-21, as well as increased levels of immunostimulatory cytokines such as IL-12 and TNF [[30]]. However, this activation is counterbalanced by an increased expression of immune regulatory molecules, including protease selleck kinase inhibitor inhibitors and T-cell suppressor factors such as arginase and iNOS [[30]].

Consistent with this phenotype, NBH cells induce IgM secretion, as well as IgG and IgA CSR, by stimulating MZ B cells RXDX-106 mw via BAFF, APRIL, IL-21, and possibly CD40L, at least in humans [[30]]. On the other hand, NBH cells express T-cell-suppressive factors such as arginase and iNOS and suppress T-cell proliferation in a contact-independent manner [[30]]. By exerting this dual B-cell helper/ T-cell suppressor function, NBH cells may maximize extrafollicular B-cell responses to TI antigens while minimizing follicular

B-cell responses to TD antigens and inflammation. Accordingly, NBH cells are excluded from splenic follicles under homeostatic conditions, but then infiltrate follicles under inflammatory conditions, perhaps to activate T cells (Fig. 2; [[30]]). Remarkably, NBH cells can induce SHM through a mechanism that could involve exposure of microbial TI antigens such as TLR ligands to MZ B cells [[30]]. This possibility is consistent with studies suggesting that MZ B cells activate the SHM machinery through a TI pathway activated by TLR ligation [[27, 96-100]]. Additional evidence indicates that MZ B cells also undergo SHM through a typical TD pathway, which may reflect the ability of MZ B cells to deposit antigen

in the follicle and activate T cells [[41, 101]]. In mice, MZ B cells express unmutated Ig genes under steady-state conditions, but other B-cell subsets have been shown to induce SHM via a TI pathway involving Dichloromethane dehalogenase TLR signaling [[100, 102, 103]]. The mechanism by which NBH cells activate MZ B cells likely involves mucosal colonization by bacteria [[30]]. Discrete amounts of microbial products such as lipopolysaccharide undergo peri-MZ deposition soon after birth [[30]]. The resulting activation of TLR4 on sinusoidal endothelial cells would then cause the release of neutrophil-attracting chemokines, such as CXCL8, as well as perifollicular accumulation and activation of NBH cells, some of which form postapoptotic DNA-containing cellular projections similar to neutrophil traps (NETs) [[30]].